Is it true that $\det(A-A^T) \geq 0$ for all $A \in \mathbb{R}^{n\times n}$?
For $n = 2$, this says that $\det\begin{pmatrix} 0 & a_{1,2}-a_{2,1} \\ a_{2,1}-a_{1,2} & 0 \end{pmatrix} \geq 0$, which is easily confirmed (the determinant is $\left(a_{1,2}-a_{2,1}\right)^2$ in this case).

$A-A^T$ is skew-symmetric so its complex eigenvalues are $0$ or purely imaginary. If $0$ is an eigenvalue, $\det(A-A^T)=0$ and the inequality holds.
Otherwise, since $A-A^T$ has real entries, complex eigenvalues come in conjugate pairs and $$\det(A-A^T) = \prod_i \lambda_i \overline{\lambda_i} = \prod_i |\lambda_i|^2 \geq 0$$