Given a positive sequence $a_n $ convergent to $0$, is it true that if $\displaystyle \lim_{n\to\infty} n^\alpha a_n=+\infty$ for some $0<\alpha<1$ then $n(1-a_n/a_{n+1})\ge-\alpha$ for large enough $n$?
I've been trying to prove this for fun because it looked true but I haven't been able to
The claim is not true.
Pick
$$a_n=\left\{ \begin{array}{lc}n^\beta &\mbox{ if } n \mbox{ is even } \\ n^{\gamma} &\mbox{ if } n \mbox{ is odd } \\ \end{array} \right.$$ with $0 > \beta > \gamma >-\alpha$. Then $$\lim_n n^\alpha a_n=\infty$$
But $$2n(1-\frac{a_{2n}}{a_{2n+1}})\ge-\alpha \Leftrightarrow \\ 2n(1-\frac{(2n)^\beta}{(2n+1)^\gamma})\ge-\alpha\Leftrightarrow \\ 1-\frac{(2n)^\beta}{(2n+1)^\gamma}\ge-\frac{\alpha}{2n} \Leftrightarrow \\ 1+\frac{\alpha}{2n} \ge\frac{(2n)^\beta}{(2n+1)^\gamma} $$
Now, since $\beta> \gamma$ this cannot happen, as the LHS converges to 1, and the RHS goes to $\infty$.