Here $\mathcal P$ is a prime ideal of $\mathbb Z[x_1, \ldots, x_n]$ and $p = \mathcal P \cap \mathbb Z$ (and assume $p \neq (0)$). I think I can prove this using the 3rd part of the second isomorphism theorem for rings taking $S = \mathbb Z$ and $I = \mathcal P$, but it was a bit messy and I see this statement (or maybe it was one like it) so often without proof/explanation that I wonder if it's obvious and I'm just missing something..
If it helps, instead of indeterminants we can replace the $x_1, \ldots, x_n$ with algebraic integers $\alpha_1, \ldots, \alpha_n$ if the statement needs this in order to hold. But I didn't think it was necessary?
If $P$ is the ideal $(p,x)$ of $R = \mathbb Z[x]$, then $R/P \cong \mathbb Z/p\mathbb Z$.