My question is:
Prove or disprove: For any number $n\in \mathbb{Z}$ and $n > 0$, $$n \ge H_n = \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{k}.$$
2026-03-30 02:11:36.1774836696
Is it true that n is always greater than or equal to harmonic_number(n)?
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Note that $$h(n) = \sum_{i = 1}^n \frac{1}{i}$$ and $$n = \sum_{i=1}^n 1.$$ Now hopefully you can see how to compare these two quantities to confirm your suspicion.