I'm an elementary education major, but one of the problems in my elementary mathematics class asked to compare the values of numbers in different bases, without converting to base ten. One example was whether 32 in base 10 is larger than, equal to, or smaller than 32 in base 5. I realized that the larger base you go up, the more each place value can hold, so I used that to solve the problems, and those specific problems that I answered are correct, but it made me wonder if you can generalize this rule. If you have a number in base n, is it always larger than or equal to a number in base n-1? Take the case where the number is larger than or equal to n, and the place digits can hold higher numbers before overflowing in base n compared to base n-1, so x in base n will always be larger than x in base n-1. Take the case where x is smaller than n, and overflowing place values don't matter, so x in base n is equal to x in base n-1 (e.g. 6 in base 10 is equal to 6 in base 8). Or at least, this is true for non-negative x and positive n, I think.
Would this be a valid proof? Thank you!
A more rigorous proof would be the following. Suppose the digits of the numeral are $$a_ka_{k-1}\cdots a_2a_1a_0.$$ If we read this as a base-$n$ number, then it is equal to $$a_k\cdot n^k+a_{k-1}\cdot n^{k-1}+\cdots +a_2\cdot n^2+a_1\cdot n + a_0.$$ If we read it as a base-$(n-1)$ number, then it is equal to $$a_k\cdot (n-1)^k+a_{k-1}\cdot (n-1)^{k-1}+\cdots +a_2\cdot (n-1)^2+a_1\cdot (n-1) + a_0.$$ The first number is greater than or equal to the second because $n^\ell \geq (n-1)^\ell$ for every nonnegative integer $\ell$.