When I was first taught limits, we were forbidden from using L'Hopital's rule to calculate it. It was regarded as a "shortcut" and not a "real method" to find a limit. Obviously, when you have to take a limit it is often a very easy and intuitive method to find the limit (provided you check the conditions correctly).
However, this led me to think whether this is because it really is just a shortcut that is unnecessary or whether there are places where it is absolutely essential.
Of course, an example of a limit which does require L'Hopital's rule to be solved would answer my question, but especially if it's not true and you CAN always find a limit without L'Hopitals's rule, I want some kind of proof or at least understanding of this.
Yes, L'Hôpital is a shortcut. If you analyze why it works, in a simplified case we have the following. You want to calculate $$ \lim_{x\to0}\frac{f(x)}{g(x)}, $$ in the case where $f(0)=g(0)=0$. The Taylor expansions of $f,g$ around $0$ are $$ f(x)=f'(0)x+o(x^2),\qquad g(x)=g'(0)x+o(x^2). $$ Then $$ \frac{f(x)}{g(x)}=\frac{f'(0)x+o(x^2)}{g'(0)x+o(x^2)}=\frac{f'(0)+o(x)}{g'(0)+o(x)}\xrightarrow[x\to0]{}\frac{f'(0)}{g'(0)}. $$ As an automation system to solve limits, L'Hôpital's rule has at least two problems:
It teaches zero intuition. This delves into the philosophy of how and why calculus is taught; and the sad reality is that these in many many cases calculus is taught as a set of automated tools without any understanding. At many (most?) universities students regularly pass calculus with high grades and no understanding of what a derivative or an integral is.
In many applications what one needs is not the value of a limit, but an understanding of how the function is behaving at the limit. Here is an easy example of what I mean. Consider $$ \lim_{x\to0}\frac{\sin x}x. $$ In many calculus courses this is an automatic L'Hôpital limit, the quotient of the derivatives is $\frac{\cos x}1=\cos x$, and $\cos 0=1$ (that the students will probably obtain with their calculator). If instead one uses approximations, the limit can be seen as $$ \frac{\sin x}x=\frac{x-\frac{x^3}6+o(x^5)}x=1-\frac{x^2}6+o(x^4), $$ and we learn that close to $x=0$ the function behaves as $1-\frac{x^2}6$ (telling us not only that the limit is $1$ but, among other things, that the approximation is quadratic).