Is $\lnot [p\implies q]$ equivalent to $p\implies \lnot q]$?

Question

I am having trouble with this, I know that $\lnot [p\implies q]$ is equivalent to $\lnot [\lnot p \lor q]$, but is it also equivalent to $p\implies \lnot q$ ? I did a truth table and found there are an equal amount of truths in both statements. Please help me understand