I have a question
If $\alpha_1$ and $\alpha_2$ are both irrationals then is $(n\alpha_1, n^2 \alpha_2)$ uniformly distributed on $[0,1)^2$?
I'm trying to use the Weyl's theorem and Fourier series. But I don't know how to do.. Anyone can help me?
2026-03-28 16:20:42.1774714842
Is $(n\alpha_1, n^2 \alpha_2)$ uniformly distributed on $[0,1)^2$
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