I'm confused as to seeing different requirements for norms.
Triangle eq. and homogeneity seem to be in all, but the last property seems to be either:
$p(v)=0 \iff v=0$ or positive definiteness
How are these related/equivalent?
It seems that positive definiteness may be able to capture the rule about norm having to be positive, while also capturing the zero element property, both at the same time?
Positive definiteness of $p$ states that $p(v) = 0 \iff v = 0$ and $p(v) \geq 0$ for all $v \in V$. This is definitely required for every norm.
If you're reading the Wikipedia article, $p(v) \geq 0$ for all $v \in V$ is implicitly encoded since $p$ is a function $p: V \to [0, \infty)$, hence you only need to include $p(v) = 0 \iff v = 0$ as an additional requirement.