Is it true that $\operatorname{Hom}(G/Z(G),Z(G))$ is abelian, where $\operatorname{Hom}(G/Z(G),Z(G))$ is the group of all homomorphisms of $G/Z(G)$ to $Z(G)$? Is it possible to have a explicit explanation of this group?
2026-03-31 17:50:36.1774979436
Is $\operatorname{Hom}(G/Z(G),Z(G))$ an abelian group?
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