Is Rolle's Theorem true when the function is not continuous at the end points?
Suppose we define a function $f(x)=x$ for $0<x\leq 1$ and define $f(0)=1$ then it satisfies all the conditions of above theorem, except continuity at $x=0$. Is Rolle's Theorem true in such cases?
We have $f(1)-f(0)=0.$ Suppose that Rolle's theorem is true. Then there is $t \in (0,1)$ such that
$$0=f'(t)=1,$$
which is absurd.