This is about semi direct product on Dummit and Foote algebra text book. Why is this statement true?
Theorem 12. Suppose $G$ is a group with subgroups $H$ and $K$ such that
- $H\trianglelefteq G$, and
- $H\cap K=1$
Let $\varphi:K\to\operatorname{Aut}(H)$ be the homomorphism defined by mappinf $k\in K$ to the automorphism of left conjugation by $k$ on $H$. Then $HK\cong H\rtimes K$. In particular, if $G=HK$ with $H$ and $K$ satisfying $(1)$ and $(2)$, then $G$ is the semidirect product of $H$ and $K$.
I think semidirect product of $H,K$ depends on the choice of homomorphism $\varphi$.
But once $H,K$ is determined, $HK$ is unique, I think.
For example, if $H =\mathbb{Z}/3\mathbb{Z}$ and $K=\mathbb{Z}/4\mathbb{Z}$ then $Aut(H)=\mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z}$.
Then homomorphism from $K$ to $Aut(H)$ is not unique. (Namely, there are two cases.)
So semidirect product of $H,K$ is not unique.
So how can I understand this situation?
Maybe, $HK$ is not unique, and there is a theorem such that $HK$ is isomorphic to the semidirect product of $H,K$ for some homomorphism $\varphi$?
Thanks!
(A) You are right: semi-direct product of $H$ by $K$ depends on choice of homomorphism $\varphi\colon K\rightarrow Aut(H)$.
(B) When we start with group $G$, and subgroups $H,K$ with
(1) $H\trianglelefteq G$,
(2) $HK=G$,
(3) $H\cap K=1$,
then (the known group) $G$ is called as internal semi-direct product of $H$ by $K$. Here, we already know that $H$ is normal in $G$, hence every element $k\in K$ determines an automorphism of $H$: $h\mapsto khk^{-1}$. This gives a homomorphism $\varphi\colon K\rightarrow Aut(H)$.
(C) Suppose we don't know $G$, but we start with groups $H$ and $K$ (not subgroups), with a homomorphism $\varphi\colon K\rightarrow Aut(H)$ [like, in your question, see after ..for example...]. Then we can construct a group $G$ such that (roughly) $H$ and $K$ satisfy (1), (2) and (3) above. In this case, the constructed group $G$ is called as external semi-direct product of $H$ by $K$.