I was thinking about the following scenario:
For $|\epsilon|<1$ let $f_\epsilon(z)$ be a meromorphic function such that
$f_0(z)$ has a pole at the origin
for $\epsilon \neq 0$, $f_\epsilon(z)$ is entire.
Is this possible, if we assume the $f_\epsilon$ depends "nicely" on $\epsilon$ (e.g. continuously)? I want to say no, but I can't quite prove this. Thanks!
I'm going to go with no: if $f_{\epsilon}(z)$ is continuous in $\epsilon$, then the integrals $$ I_n(\epsilon) := \int_{\lvert z \rvert= r} z^n f_{\epsilon}(z) \, dz \quad n = 0,1,2,\dotsc $$ are
Since these facts are unreconcilable, I don't think your scenario can occur.