Is surjectivity equivalent to the existence of a right inverse?

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My question is : is the following reasoning correct ?

Let $X$ and $Y$ be two Banach spaces and let $T:X\rightarrow Y$ a bounded surjective operator. Then $T^{\ast }$ $:Y^{\ast }\rightarrow X^{\ast }$ is a bounded below operator and hence it has a left inverse $R^{\ast }$ $:Y^{\ast }\rightarrow X^{\ast }$, that is $R^{\ast }T^{\ast }=Id_{Y^{\ast }}$ then $% TR=Id_{X}$ and hence $T$ has a right inverse.

Or must $X$ and $Y$ be reflexive to do like ?

Thank you !