This might look like a copy of another question, but what I'm about to propose here is new. There's this question,
Find the least positive integral value of n for which $(\frac{1+i}{1-i})^n = 1$
While solving, if we multiply what is within the bracket, by the conjugate of denominator and divide by the same thing, we get $i$ in the bracket, that means, the question boils down to
$i ^ n= 1$
We know that the least positive value $n$ can have is $4$, for $i^n$ to be $1$. Done. Now, IF I were to solve it by taking mod on both sides of the given equation, I would get
$\Big(\frac{|1+i|}{|1-i|}\Big)^n = |1|$
$\Big(\frac{\sqrt{2}}{\sqrt{2}}\Big)^n = 1$
$1^n = 1$
NOTE that the least positive value of $n$ changes from $4$ to $1$.
Why is it so? I read an answer on stack exchange, that it is valid to do anything with the equation until it maintains the equality. I didn't destroy the equality, so why does the answer vary?
Is there any restriction as to where to use the "taking-mod-both-sides" thing?
The problem is, "taking-mod-of-both-sides" is valid, but only gives a one way implication. If $z_{1} = z_{2}$ then $|z_{1}| = |z_{2}|$. But there are lots of possibilities for $z_{3}$,$z_{4}$ with $|z_{3}| = |z_{4}|$ and $z_{3} \neq z_{4}$, since modulus is not a one-to-one map.
When you look at ${\left(\frac{1+\mathrm{i}}{1-\mathrm{i}}\right)}^{n}$, this always has modulus $1$ for all values of $n$. But this just means it lies on the unit circle in the complex plane, it does not mean that it is equal to 1.