Let $\Omega \subseteq \mathbb{R}^n$ be an open bounded domain, and let $1<p<n$. Suppose that $f \in W^{1,p}(\Omega)$ is continuous*, and $g \in C^{\infty}(\mathbb{R})$.
Is it true that $g \circ f \in W^{1,p}_{loc}(\Omega)$?
My guess was that the answer is positive, and that $\partial_i (g \circ f)(x)=g'(f(x)) \partial_i f(x)$ but a naive calculation to prove it failed.
*Note that the continuity of $f$ does not follow from $f \in W^{1,p}(\Omega)$, since $p<n$; this is an additional assumption I am adding.
The answer is positive. Indeed, we have the following version of the chain rule in Sobolev spaces:
As stated this theorem does not help us. However, inspecting its proof we see that it only uses the following fact:
There exist approximating functions $u_k \in C^{\infty}$ (i.e. $u_k \to u$ in $W^{1,p}$) such that $F'$ is bounded in a ball containing $\text{Image}(u_k),\text{Image}(u)$ for all sufficiently large $k$.
In our case, $u$ is continuous hence bounded on compact subsets. Hence, there are approximations $u_k$ which are also uniformly bounded for sufficiently large $k$. (Think of the standard density proof, via convolution with mollifiers). Recall we are only looking for a local result.
From here essentially the same proof should work.