Is the statement above true for $X \cong_{bihol} Y$? I would say yes, since I can transform any holomorphic function on a open set in $X$ to one in $Y$ and vice versa.
2026-03-25 16:02:07.1774454527
Is the genus of biholomorphic Riemann surfaces the same?
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Biholomorphic $\implies$ homeomorphic...