$\newcommand{\Cof}{\operatorname{cof}} \newcommand{\id}{\operatorname{Id}}$ Let $V$ be a real oriented $d$-dimensional vector space ($d>2$). Let $2 \le k \le d-1$ be fixed.
Consider the following map: $$\psi:\text{GL}^+(V) \to \text{GL}(\bigwedge^{k}V) \, \,, \, \, \psi(A)=\bigwedge^{k}A,$$
where $\bigwedge^{k} V$ is the $k$-th exterior power of $V$.
Is $\text{Image}(\psi)$ an embedded submanifold of $\text{GL}(\bigwedge^{k}V)$?
Edit:
By the closed subgroup theorem, it suffices to show the image is closed. (I think this might be proven using SVD, and the fact $k \le d-1$, but I am not sure. When $k=d$, $\det A_n$ can converge even when $A_n$ does not, of course).
I know that $\psi$ is a smooth, locally injective homomorphism of Lie groups. In particular, it is an immersion.
I am particularly interested in the case where $k,d$ are not both even; in that case $\psi$ is injective.
If we can prove $\psi$ is an embedding in this case, then we are done. (However, I am not sure this is a necessary condition).
Comment: My motivation is connected to this question.
The answer is positive. The image is closed, hence embedded (by the closed subgroup theorem).
Let us prove it is closed: Let $A_n \in \text{GL}^+(\mathbb{R}^d)$ and suppose that $\bigwedge^k A_n$ converges to some element $D$ in $\text{GL}(\bigwedge^k\mathbb{R}^d)$. Since the map $A \to \bigwedge^kA$ is continuous, it suffices to show $A_n$ converges to some element in $\text{GL}^+(\mathbb{R}^d)$.
By using SVD, we can assume $A_n=\Sigma_n=\text{diag}(\sigma_1^n,\dots,\sigma_d^n)$ is diagonal. (Since the orthogonal group is compact, the isometric components surely converge after passing to a subsequence).
We know that $\bigwedge A_n$ is diagonal with eigenvalues $\Pi_{r=1}^k \sigma_{i_r}^n$, where all the $i_r$ are different. So, we know every such product converges when $n \to \infty$. Let $1\le i \neq j \le d$. Since $k \le d-1$, we can choose some $1 \le i_1,\dots,i_{k-1} \le d$ all different from $i,j$. Since both products $$(\Pi_{r=1}^{k-1} \sigma_{i_r}^n)\sigma_{i}^n,(\Pi_{r=1}^{k-1} \sigma_{i_r}^n)\sigma_{j}^n$$ converge to positive numbers, so does their ratio $C_{ij}^n=\frac{\sigma_i^n}{\sigma_j^n}$.
Now we know that $$\Pi_{r=1}^k \sigma_{r}^n=\Pi_{r=1}^k \sigma_{1}^n\frac{\sigma_r^n}{\sigma_1^n}=\Pi_{r=1}^k \sigma_{1}^nC_{r1}^n=(\sigma_{1}^n)^k \Pi_{r=1}^k C_{r1}^n$$ converges to a positive number. Since all the $C_{r1}^n$ converge, we deduce $\sigma_1^n$ converges. W.L.O.G the same holds for every $\sigma_i^n$, so $A_n$ indeed converges to an invertible matrix.