In my abstract algebra book, the definition of an inner automorphism is written as:
Let $G$ be a group, and let $a$ belong to $G$. The function $\phi_a$ defined by $\phi_a(x)= axa^{-1}$ for all $x$ in $G$ is called the inner automorphism of $G$ induced by $a$.
However, in Wikipedia, $\phi_a$ is said to be equal to $a^{-1}xa$.
Are they the same? Am I missing anything obvious?
Oh, this is whether you act on the left or the right. It's purely a convention thing. If you 'act on the right', your conjugate of $x$ by $g$ is $g^{-1}xg$, and group actions on a set are $\Omega\times G\to \Omega$ given by $\omega\cdot g$. If you 'act on the left', your conjugate of $x$ by $g$ is $gxg^{-1}$, and group actions on a set are $G\times \Omega\to \Omega$ given by $g(\omega)$.
Because of Euler's $f(x)$ notation for a function $f$ applied to $x$, rather than $xf$ or $(x)f$, people thought it was a good idea to compose functions from the right side to the left, i.e., opposite to how you read in European languages. But in group theory a lot of people compose from left to right. So homomorphisms $\phi$ are written $g\phi$ rather than $\phi(g)$.
It's a complete pain, and the cause of a lot of confusion and errors.