Let G be a finite group, H a maximal proper subgroup of G and K a subgroup of H. Is the normalizer of K in G, $N_GK$, a subgroup of H. Now $N_GK$ is certainly contained in some maximal subgroup, maybe more than one, but why is it contained in H. This should be really elementary.
As is pointed out below, there are trivial counterexamples. K = {e} for example, or normal in G. So it es elementarily false. I will mark this answered.
There are several problems with what you write.
First: it is not true that $N_G(K)$ "is certainly contained in a maximal subgroup"; that's only true if $N_G(K)\neq G$, that is, if $K$ is not normal in $G$... a possibility you never excluded.
Second: It is not necessarily contained in $H$. Here is an example: take $G=S_3\times C_3$, let $H=S_3\times\{e\}$, and take $A$ to be a subgroup of $S_3$ of order $2$, and let $K$ be the subgroup given by $A\times\{e\}$. This is contained in $H$; but its normalizer is $A\times C_3$, which is not contained in $H$.
You have absolutely no reason to think that $N_G(K)$ will be contained in $H$ in general. If $K\triangleleft H$, then you know that $H\leq N_G(K)$ and hence that $N_G(K)=H$ or $G$, but I think that's about all you can say in this generality of setting.