Is the formula:
$$\forall x \exists y \forall z \exists u (F(x) \lor G(y) \to F(z) \lor G(u))$$
Equivalent to formula:
$$\forall z \exists u \forall x \exists y (F(x) \lor G(y) \to F(z) \lor G(u))$$
?
I know that $\forall a \exists b$ is not the same as $\exists b \forall a$. But how about the above formulas? And why?
Thanks.
The statements are equivalent.
It's easy to see why by noting that they are, respectively, of the form
$$\forall x \exists y \forall z \exists u (P(x,y) \to Q(z,u))$$
and
$$\forall z \exists u \forall x \exists y (P(x,y) \to Q(z,u)).$$
(In this case $P$ and $Q$ are the same predicate, but even they were different, they would still be equivalent as I show below).
Since $z,u$ do not occurr in the the predicate $P(x,y)$, it's possible to distribute the quantifiers of $z$ and $u$ over it. Thus, getting, for instances from the first statement, $$\forall x \exists y (P(x,y) \to \forall z \exists u (Q(z,u))).$$
By the same token this statement is equivalent to $$\forall x \exists y (P(x,y)) \to \forall z \exists u (Q(z,u)).$$
A similar process shows that the second given statement is also equivalence to this one.
I alluded to the 'why' in a semi-semantical/semi-syntatic way. If you want a different kind of proof, let me know what kind.