Is the Primer Introduction to Derivation of Implicit Functions Using This Definition Ambiguous?

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I'm exploring the concept of implicit function derivation and parameterized curve derivation, and I've encountered some points that seem vague to me. I would appreciate any insights or clarifications on these topics.

Simple Derivation of Implicit Functions and Parameterized Curves:

  • The introduction I've seen using the chain rule and applying the derivative of the inverse function in a manner that seems somewhat imprecise. Specifically, the requirement for the derivative of the inverse function, $ f'(x_0) \ne 0 $, originates from the denominator being a constant 1. However, in this context, we first obtain the ratio of the derivatives of two parametric equations and then take the limit, which might lead to an indeterminate form.
  • For example, consider the equation: $$ \left\{ \begin{align*} y(t) &= t - \ln(1 + t) \\ x(t) &= t^3 + t^2 \end{align*} \right. $$
  • Here, $x'(t) = 3t^2 + 2t$, meaning $x'(0) = 0$ . However, $y'(0)=x'(0)=0$, and we don't even need to apply L'Hôpital's Rule, since $\frac{y'(t)}{x'(t)} = \frac{\frac{t}{1 + t}}{3t^2 + 2t} = \frac{1}{(1 + t)(3t + 2t)}$ . So, if we take $\mathop{\lim} \limits _{t \rightarrow 0} \frac{y'(t)}{x'(t)}$ (the derivative is defined as a limit), it seems to equal $\frac{1}{2}$ simply.

Reference:

Derivation of Implicit Functions and Parameterized Curves:

  • The derivative of $ y(t) $ with respect to $ x(t) $ at a specific point $ x_0 = x(t_0) $ ($x'(t_0) \ne 0$) can be expressed as follows:
    • $\frac{dy(t)}{dx(t)}|_{x_0} = \frac{dy(t)}{dt}|_{t_0} \frac{dt}{dx(t)}|_{x_0} = \frac{\frac{dy(t)}{dt}|_{t_0}}{\frac{dx(t)}{dt}|_{t_0}} = \frac{y'(t_0)}{x'(t_0)}$
  • The first equality is based on the chain rule, and the second equality involves applying the derivative of the inverse function, which requires the condition "$x'(t_0) \ne 0$".

Theorem - Derivative and Differential of the Inverse Function:

  • Let $ X, Y \subset \mathbb{R} $, with $ x_0 \in X $ as a limit point and $ y_0 \in Y $ also as a limit point. Suppose $ f: X \mapsto Y $ and $ f^{-1}: Y \mapsto X $ with $ f(x_0) = y_0 $ and $ x_0 = f^{-1} (y_0) $.
  • If:
    • (i) $ f $ is differentiable at $ x_0 $ with $ f'(x_0) \ne 0 $;
    • (ii) $ f^{-1} $ is continuous at $ y_0 $;
  • Then $ f^{-1} $ is differentiable at $ y_0 $, and $$ (f^{-1})'(y_0) = \frac{1}{f'(x_0)} = \frac{1}{f'(f^{-1}(y_0))} $$