Is the right way of interpreting change of basis matrix?

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Here is an extract from my notes on how I think about the change of basis matrices

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I am not sure that my interpretation is correct; that is how I have defined $P$ and $Q$ as the matrix representation of the identity with different bases. Could someone let me know if this is correct and if not, why it is incorrect?

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If you are looking at a matrix-transform of a vector, you can consider it a dot product of the vector and columns of the matrix, the result is a vector instead of a numeric value.

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All this manner of stating things is horribly confusing in my opinion. Forgetting bases to begin with, every $n\times m$ matrix$~M$ corresponds directly and bijectively to a linear map $K^m\to K^n$ (where $K$ is the field the we are considering vector spaces over; read $\Bbb R^n$ for $K^n$ if you are considering real vector spaces), namely $v\mapsto M\cdot v$, the map of multiplying (on the left) by $M$. Composition of such maps corresponds to matrix multiplication (with the rightmost matrix corresponding to the first map applied).

Bases are used to bring a general vector space $V$ (in other words, one does not specify what kind of value its vectors $v\in V$ are) of dimension$~n$ into correspondence with the special vector space $K^n$ (whose elements are $n$-tuples of scalars in$~K$). If $\def\B{\mathcal B}\def\b{\mathbf b}\B=[\b_1,\ldots,\b_n]$ is a list of vectors in$~V$, one always has a linear map $g_\B:K^n\to V$ defined by forming linear combinations: $(x_1,\ldots,x_n)\mapsto x_1\b_1+x_2\b_2+\cdots+x_n\b_n$, and $\B$ is a basis precisely when this linear map is a bijection $K^n\to V$. A mental image that can be useful is that $\B$ serves as a (multiple) unit of measure that allows all elements of$~V$ to be expressed numerically, via the inverse bijection $f_\B:V\to K^n$, which is the coordinate map associated to the basis$~\B$.

A basic question when more than one basis of$~V$ is considered is that of coordinate change. If after $\B$ we consider a new bases $\def\CC{\mathcal C}\def\cc{\mathbf c}\CC=[\cc_1,\ldots,\cc_n]$, then what is the relation between $f_\B(v)$ and $f_\CC(v)$ for arbitrary vectors $v\in V$? To answer this, one first needs to know how the vectors of $\CC$ are situated relative to the basis$~\B$, and this information can be given in the form of an $n\times n$ matrix$~P$, called the change of basis matrix from $\B$ to$~\CC$, whose columns are $f_\B(\cc_1),\ldots,f_\B(\cc_n)$, that is, column $j$ contains the coordinates with respect to$~\B$ of the vector $\cc_j\in V$. Now the relation between $f_\B(v)$ and $f_\CC(v)$ can be given first for the cases where $v=\cc_j$ for some$~j$, and then extended by linearity to arbitrary vectors. Now since $\cc_j=0\cc_1+0\cc_2+\cdots+1\cc_j+\cdots+0\cc_n$ one has $f_\CC(\cc_j)=(\delta_{i,j})_{i=1}^n$, the $j$-th column of the $n\times n$ identity matrix (also called $j$-th standard basis vector of $K^n$), while we saw that $f_\B(\cc_j)$ is the $j$-th column of$~P$, so that $f_\B(\cc_j)=P\cdot f_\CC(\cc_j)$ for all$~j$. By linearity if the maps $f_\B$, $f_\CC$, and of multiplication by$~P$, it follows that $f_\B(v)=P\cdot f_\CC(v)$ for all$~v\in V$. In other words, multiplication by the change of basis matrix$~P$ transforms the coordinates $f_\CC(v)$ of $v$ with respect to the new basis$~\CC$ into its coordinates with respect to the old basis$~\B$: it equals the composition $f_\B\circ g_\CC$. To go from the old basis to the new basis, one must instead perform the inverse $f_\CC\circ g_\B$, which is given by multiplication by$~P^{-1}$.

Now given vector spaces $V,W$ and bases $\B_1$ of $V$ en $B_2$ of $W$, any linear map $\phi:V\to W$ can be described by a matrix $\def\Mat{\operatorname{Mat}}A={}_{\B_2}\Mat_{\B_1}(\phi)$, which is that of the composite map $\def\from{\leftarrow}f_{\B_2}\circ\phi\circ g_{\B_1}:K^n\from W\from V\from K^m$ (written right-to-left as that is how composite maps apply). If we want to compute from this the matrix ${}_{\B_2}\Mat_{\CC_1}(\phi)$ where in $V$ one uses a new basis$~\CC_1$, one can get this by right-composition with $f_{\B_1}\circ g_{\CC_1}$, whose matrix is the change of basis matrix $P$ from $\B_1$ to $\CC_1$, so on must replace $A$ by $A\cdot P$. Similarly changing to ${}_{\CC_2}\Mat_{\B_1}(\phi)$ where in $W$ one uses a new basis$~\CC_2$ is done by left-composition with $g_{\CC_2}\circ f_{\B_2}$, whose matrix is the inverse of the change of basis matrix $Q$ from $\B_2$ to $\CC_2$, so on must replace $A$ by $Q^{-1}A$. Doing both changes at one we must replace $A$ by $Q^{-1}AP$.


I think I've probably interchanged $m$ and $n$ with respect to your presentation, and I have no idea how my $P$ and $Q$ relate to yours. In any case I think it is a fundamentally wrong approach when discussing change of basis to invoke any non-identity linear maps $V\to V$ at all, like the one sending one basis to another; the only meaningful maps in this context are the ones like $f_{\B_2}\circ g_{\B_1}:K^n\to K^n$ that interpret coordinates for $\B_1$ and then express the resulting vector in coordinates for$~B_2$. Also the use of the $\sum$ symbol is more confusing than helpful (the only summations needed are implicit in the definition of matrix multiplication).