It increasingly seems to me that the functions that have elementary integrals are quite rare in comparison to the ones that don't have them. Even raising an elementary function to a different power may result in it not having an elementary integral .
Ex. $\sqrt{\arctan (x)}$
Also many seemingly simple functions do not have elementary integrals.
Ex. $\frac {\sin (x)}{x}$ or $ \sin \left( \frac{1}{x} \right) $
So my question is that can we write a formal proof to prove/disprove that the set of elementary functions which do not have elementary integrals is bigger than set of elementary functions which have elementary integrals?
This might not answer your question precisely, but you might be interested by discussions around Liouville's theorem in differential algebra. Here is a link to the Wikipedia page of this theorem.
In a few words, the goal is to formalise the situation by saying that your "known" functions lie in some field $K$. For example, $K$ could be $\mathbb R(X)$ the field of rationnal fractions over $\mathbb R$. Then, adding some new functions like the logarithm is the same as looking at field extensions which have a certain property. I let you read that by yourself hoping that this might help you.
However I don't think this will answer your question fully, i.e. giving a way to take into account a comprehensive list of usual functions and then characterising perfectly those which integral is still some usual function.