In this Wiki article it is described how the $SO(3)$ is homeomorphic to the projective space $\mathbb{RP}^3$. I would suggest another way which I hope it works.
On $S^2$ one may take any direction (not vector) as an axis of rotation, and for each such axis we have the rotation about it as an $S^1$. Since the set of all directions is topologised as the projective plane $\mathbb{PR}^2$, so at least it must be true that $SO(3)$ is some fiber bundle $(E,\pi,\mathbb{PR}^2)$ of $S^1$ over $\mathbb{PR}^2$. But is it possible to assume that $SO(3) \overset{?}{\cong} \mathbb{PR}^2 \times S^1$ (a trivial bundle) ? and hence, is the space $\mathbb{PR}^3$ homeomorphic to $\mathbb{PR}^2\times S^1$ ?
The space $\mathbb{RP}^3$ has mod-$2$ cohomology ring $\mathbb Z_2[x]/x^4$ while $\mathbb{RP}^2\times S^1$ has mod-$2$ cohomology ring $\mathbb Z_2[x]/x^2\otimes\mathbb Z_2[y]/y^2$. These two rings are non-isomorphic, so these spaces are not even homotopy equivalent.
Alternatively: