Consider the class of all bounded linear operators on $X$ such that for each $f$ we have \begin{equation*} m(f)=\sup_{x\neq y}\frac{\left\vert f(x)-f(y)\right\vert }{\left\vert x-y\right\vert }. \end{equation*} is a Banach space.
2026-04-03 13:28:05.1775222885
Is the space of all bounded linear operators form a Banach space (under the given norm)?
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