The question asks if there is a basis for which both of the following quadratic forms are in a diagonalized form:
$$ q_1(x_1,x_2) = x_1^2 + x_1x_2 - x_2^2 $$ $$ q_2(x_1,x_2) = x_1^2 - 2x_1x_2 $$
What i tried:
I tried to see if one of the quadratic forms is positive definite, but I got that both are not.
Yet, it's not enough to say that none are positive definite in order to prove that there isn't a basis for which both are diagonalized, or at least I am not familiar with such a sentence.
So how can I determine this ?
Thank you.
The answer is no.
In fact if there exists a base of $\mathbb{R}^2$ such that the symmetric matrixes $A,B$ associated to the two quadratic forms are diagonalizable in that base, then there exists an orthogonal change base matrix $P$ such that
$P^TAP=I_1$
and
$P^TBP=I_2$
where $I_1, I_2$ are diagonal matrixes. Then we get
$AB=P^TI_1I_2 P=P^TI_2 I_1 P=BA$
because $P$ is orthogonal and so $P^{T}=P^{-1}$.
This means that you would have $AB=BA$.
In your case
$A=[[1, \frac{1}{2}], [\frac{1}{2}, -1]]$
$B=[[1, -1],[-1, 0]]$
and you can observe they not commute.
A necessary condition to get two matrixes are simultaneously diagonalizable is that they commute.
When the field is algebraically closed, then this condition is also sufficient.