Being an ordinal is first-order definable, within ZFC at least.
Out of many possible first-order characterizations, one is that an ordinal is a transitive set where $\in$ is trichotomous, i.e. $w$ is an ordinal if and only if:
- $[\forall x]([\exists a](x \in a \land a \in w) \to x \in w)$
- $[\forall x \forall y](x \in y \lor x = y \lor x \ni y)$
Being a Reinhardt cardinal is not first-order definable.
However, the much more basic question of whether being a cardinal is first-order definable doesn't seem to exist yet.
Is being a cardinal first-order definable?
Yes, here's one way to do it. It's kind of unsatisfying because it isn't succinct like the first-order characterization of an ordinal.
As has been established, being an ordinal is a first-order property.
Two sets having the same cardinality as each other also has a first-order characterization. $A$ and $B$ have the same cardinality if and only if there exists a bijection between them and a bijection is a set of pairs satisfying some additional first-order condtions.
A cardinal is the least ordinal of a given cardinality. Thus $w$ is a cardinal if and only if:
These two conditions can be expanded into a long first-order formula.