This question came up in my interview for a job application(you won't believe it but it was a C# programmer job application).
Let's say we have a open set $(0,1)$.
Can we say that there is a maximum value between $(0,1)$ or it is considered as undefined?
I answered that there is and it is
$$ 1 - \frac{1}{10^\infty} $$
But they said there isn't any max value. I still think my answer is correct.
Edit:
In some answers, it is basically said that:
$$ \frac{1}{10^\infty} > \frac{1}{2\cdot10^\infty} $$
Is this equation valid since there are infinite values in each side? I thought $$ 2\cdot\infty = \infty $$ and $$ \frac{\infty}{2} = \infty $$ So it doesn't matter how much you multiply or divide infinity, it is still infinity?
Sorry if the question is silly but I am a computer programmer, not mathematician.
Your answer doesn't make much sense. It's equal to $1$ if anything (see Is it true that $0.999999999\ldots = 1$?).
You have to look at the definition: $m$ is the maximum if $m\in(0,1)$ and $\forall x\in(0,1),\ x\le m$. Clearly, this fails for any element $m\in(0,1)$ because $m<(m+1)/2<1$.