I am studying for the Society of Actuaries' Financial Math exam and I found the solution to this practice problem to be not convincing enough:
Is there a more mathematical / rigorous way of showing why $P > 105$? I am just not convinced by the author's solution above.
For instance, from another study manual, I know we can let $S_0$ be the current price and let $F_{0, 1}$ be the forward price for delivery in one year. Let $r$ be the force of interest.
Then either $F_{0, 1} = S_0e^{rT}, F_{0, T} = S_0e^{rT} - FV(\text{dividends})$, or $F_{0, 1} = S_0e^{(r - \delta)T}$, depending on whether the stock is non-dividend-paying, pays discrete dividends, or has dividend yield $\delta$, respectively.
I don't know where to go from here, but I feel like there has got to be a way to show without a doubt that the expected price of P is greater than 105.

Think about it this way: The buyer of the forward contract is certain to get the forward $F_{0,1}$ in one year. Therefore the present value of this future payment should be discounted by the risk-free rate, say, $r_0$. The expected value of the stock in one year, $E_{0,1}$, however, is not known, and so the present value of the expected value will be obtained by discounting the expected value by some higher rate than the risk-free rate, say, $r_1>r_0$, which reflects the fact that buying a stock is risky. As both present values must give the same current stock price, we get, assuming continuous discounting:
$$e^{-r_0}F_{0,1}=e^{-r_1}E_{0,1}$$
since $e^{-r_0}>e^{-r_1}$, we must have $E_{0,1}>F_{0,1}$.
(I did assume no dividends)