Consider
$$
x(n)=\frac{1}{\log(n+1)}
$$
It is easy to check that $x\in c_0\setminus \left(\bigcup_{1\leq p<\infty}\ell_p\right)$. Indeed
$$
\lim\limits_{n\to \infty} x(n) = \lim\limits_{n\to \infty}\frac{1}{\log (n+1)}=0
$$
so $x\in c_0$. Now for fixed $p\in [1,+\infty)$ there exist $N\in \mathbb{N}$ such that for all $n>N$ we have $\log^p (n+1)<n$, so
$$
\Vert x\Vert_p=
\left(\sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{\log^p (n+1)}\right)^{1/p}=
\left(\sum\limits_{n=1}^N \frac{1}{\log^p (n+1)}+
\sum\limits_{n=N+1}^\infty \frac{1}{\log^p (n+1)}\right)^{1/p}>
$$
$$
\left(\sum\limits_{n=1}^N \frac{1}{\log^p (n+1)}+
\sum\limits_{n=N+1}^\infty \frac{1}{n}\right)^{1/p}=+\infty
$$
the last equality holds since the series
$$
\sum\limits_{n=N+1}^\infty \frac{1}{n}
$$
diverges.
0
Bumbble Comm
On
$\frac{1}{\ln n}$ converges to 0 but $\sum \frac{1}{\ln^p n} = \infty$ for any $p \geq 1$.
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Bumbble Comm
On
$$
\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1}{\log(n+1)}=0\text{, but }\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{(\log(n+1))^p}=\infty\quad\forall p>0.
$$
0
Bumbble Comm
On
Prove: If $V$ is a separable Banach space, then $V$ cannot be written as a countable union of proper linear subspaces.
Because of inclusions among the $\ell_p$ spaces, your union is, in fact, equal to a countable union.
Consider $$ x(n)=\frac{1}{\log(n+1)} $$ It is easy to check that $x\in c_0\setminus \left(\bigcup_{1\leq p<\infty}\ell_p\right)$. Indeed $$ \lim\limits_{n\to \infty} x(n) = \lim\limits_{n\to \infty}\frac{1}{\log (n+1)}=0 $$ so $x\in c_0$. Now for fixed $p\in [1,+\infty)$ there exist $N\in \mathbb{N}$ such that for all $n>N$ we have $\log^p (n+1)<n$, so $$ \Vert x\Vert_p= \left(\sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{\log^p (n+1)}\right)^{1/p}= \left(\sum\limits_{n=1}^N \frac{1}{\log^p (n+1)}+ \sum\limits_{n=N+1}^\infty \frac{1}{\log^p (n+1)}\right)^{1/p}> $$ $$ \left(\sum\limits_{n=1}^N \frac{1}{\log^p (n+1)}+ \sum\limits_{n=N+1}^\infty \frac{1}{n}\right)^{1/p}=+\infty $$ the last equality holds since the series $$ \sum\limits_{n=N+1}^\infty \frac{1}{n} $$ diverges.