I am an adult software developer who is trying to do a math reboot. I am working through the exercises in the following book.
Ayres, Frank , Jr. and Elliott Mendelson. 2013. Schaum's Outlines Calculus Sixth Edition (1,105 fully solved problems, 30 problem-solving videos online). New York: McGraw Hill. ISBN 978-0-07-179553-1.
So far as I can tell, the following question either has a misprint or the book does not cover the material. It is entirely possible that I failed to grasp a key important sentence.
Chapter 7 Limits, problem 24.
Use the precise definition to prove:
$$ \text{a) }\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{1}{x} = \infty \\ \text{b) }\lim_{x \to 1} \frac{x}{x-1} = \infty \\ $$
My understanding.
It is possible to prove $\lim_{x \to 0^+} \frac{1}{x} = +\infty$ or $\lim_{x \to 0^-} \frac{1}{x} = -\infty$, but not $\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{1}{x} = \infty$ because $\frac{1}{x}$ is a hyperbola with no limit at 0. A similar argument can be made for $\frac{x}{x-1}$ at 1.
Is there a proof for $\lim_{x \to a} \frac{1}{x-a} = \infty$?
Also in this case the limit doesn't exist but we can consider the two side limits
$$\lim_{x \to a^+} \frac{1}{x-a} = +\infty$$
$$\lim_{x \to a^-} \frac{1}{x-a} = -\infty$$
for the proof a simple way is set $y=x-a\to 0$ and the limits become the simpler
$$\lim_{y \to 0^+} \frac{1}{y} = +\infty$$
$$\lim_{x \to 0^-} \frac{1}{y} = -\infty$$