Is there an error in the solution for this exercise?

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I have this exercise:

H is a complex hilbert space. And T is a compact operator on H. Show that if H is not separable, then 0 is an eigenvalue of T.

Hint: Use lemma 1, and theorem 2.

The lemma it refers to is this:

Lemma 1:

Let Y be a closed linear subspace of a Hilbert space H. Show that if $Y\ne H$, then $Y^\perp\ne\{0\}$.

The theorem it refers to is this:

Theorem 2:

Let X and Y be normed spaces and let T be a linear operator($T\in L(X,Y)$). Then

if T is compact then $\text{Im } T$ and $\overline{\text{Im T}}$ are seperable.

The solution is this:

Since H is not seperable it follows from Theorem 2 that $\overline{\text{Im T}}\ne H$, so Ker T =$\overline{\text{Im T}}^\perp\ne\{0\}$(see Lemma 1). Thus there exists $e \ne0$ such that $Te=0$, that is, e is an eigenvector of T, with eigenvalue 0.

But they use that Ker T =$\overline{\text{Im T}}^\perp$. How do they get this?

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That result quoted in the solution is not quite true: what is true is that $\text{Ker } T = (\text{Im } T^*)^{\perp}$. It doesn't matter, though, since $T$ being compact implies that its Hilbert space adjoint $T^*$ is compact as well. Hence, by Theorem 2, $(\text{Im } T^*)^{\perp} \neq \{0\}$, so that there is an $e \neq 0$ in $H$ so that $Te=0$.