A rather old-fashioned symbol for logical implication is $\supset$ (see list of logic symbols). For example $p \supset q$ means $p \implies q$ or $p \rightarrow q$ in more recent notations.
Is there any semantic connection between using the symbol to show implication and using it to represent subset/superset relationships?
I can see a connection myself but the problem is I see it in the opposite direction ($\subset$ instead of $\supset$). For example, I see $x \in A \implies x \in B$ is (somewhat) equivalent to $A \subset B$. Therefore, if I had to reuse the subset/super set symbol for logical implication, I would have used $p \subset q$ to denote $p \implies q$. Is there any historical or semantic reason for using $\supset$?
For the "devious" evolution of the symbolism, we can see :
Florian Cajori, A history of mathematical notations (1928) : SYMBOLS IN MATHEMATICAL LOGIC, §667-on :
We have in Peano, Formulaire, vol.2, page 26 :
See also in :
The original edition has a Signorum Tabula [page vi] with Ɔ : deducitur aut continetur.
You can see also Earliest Uses of Symbols of Set Theory and Logic.
In spite of the seemingly inconsistency, we can conjecture an historical explanation for this sort of "inversion" that used the "horseshoe" ($\supset$) where we (today) expect to find the "inclusion" ($\subset$).
According to Peano, we have $q\mathrel{C}p$ for "$q$ is a consequence of $p$", and then, through W&R's Principia Mathematica to $p \supset q$ and the modern $p \to q$.
For the modern formal logic, propositional logic is "prior to" first-order logic; but from ancient Greece until Early Modern times, formal logic was mainly the Syllogistics which, from a modern point of view, id monadic first-order logic.
The basic "building block" of syllogism is the assertion :
that we translate as $\forall x(Sx \to Px)$, and thus the "set equivalent" : $S \subset P$, where we have silently moved from the predicates (or attributes) $S,P$ to the corresponding "extension" : the sets $S,P$.
Thus, we have a "symbolic" inconsistency : $Sx \supset_x Px$ corresponds to $S \subset P$.
But in "traditional" logic there is also another possible reading of the categoricals sentences : "all $S$'s are $P$'s". In Prior Analytics, Aristotle says :
The usual example : "all $\mathit{Men}$ are $\mathit{Mortal}$", that we read "estensionally" as "the set-of $\mathit{Men} \subset$ the set-of $\mathit{Mortal}$", can also be read "intensionally" as "$\mathit{Mortality}$ belongs to $\mathit{Humanity}$".
We can see in :
Antoine Arnauld & Pierre Nicole, Logic or the Art of Thinking (La Logique ou l'art de penser, 1st ed 1662, ed.Jill Vance Buroker, 1996), page 39:
According to this theory, $\mathit{Mortality}$ belongs to $\mathit{Humanity}$ exactly because the "attribute" of $\mathit{Mortality}$ is contained into the idea of $\mathit{Humanity}$.
So, from the idea of $Humanity$ we can "deduce" the attribute of $\mathit{Mortality}$.
In conclusion, we can trace a path from :
to, from one side : $\mathit{Men}(x) \supset_x \mathit{Mortal}(x)$, that we read "estensionally" as : $\mathit{Men} \subset \mathit{Mortal}$, and, from the other side to : $\mathit{Mortality}$ belongs to $\mathit{Humanity}$, that we read as : from $\mathit{Humanity}$ we can deduce $\mathit{Mortality}$, i.e. using Peano's symbols : $\mathit{Mortality} \mathrel{C} \mathit{Humanit}y$, then reverted into :
Addendum
See :
Leila Haaparanta (editor), The Development of Modern Logic (2009), Ch.3. Logic and Philosophy of Logic from Humanism to Kant by Mirella Capozzi and Gino Roncaglia, page 78-on: §10. Logical Calculi in the Eighteenth Century, page 129 :
Note : clearly, $AB = A$, in our modern "extensional" reading (as sets) means "$A$ is subset of $B$", and thus we have $A \subset B$. Segner, instead, says : "$A$ contains $B$".
Note : again, for us "all $A$ are $B$" means that the sets of $A$'s is a subset of the set of $B$'s, while for Segner means "the idea $A$ contains the idea $B$".
Thus, $\mathit{idea}_A$ is contained in $\mathit{idea}_B$ when "if $\mathit{idea}_B$, then $\mathit{idea}_A$"; according to my "interpretation" :
See page 133 :
Thus, $\mathit{idea}_A$ is contained in $\mathit{idea}_B$ when $A$ is less general than $B$, i.e. :