I learnt in probability theorem class that correlation coefficient is $$ \rho=\frac{\sigma_{XY}}{\sigma_X \sigma_Y}=\frac{E\left[(X-\mu_X)(Y-\mu_Y)\right]}{\sigma_X \sigma_Y} $$
However, my communication professor taught me that the correlation of two random variables is equal to expectation of X times Y. $$ \mbox{Corr}(X, Y)=E(XY)=\int\int_{\mathbb R^2}xy\cdot f(x,y) dxdy $$
"Correlation between two random variables" and "Correlation coefficient of two random variables" are different????
How can I have to understand? Do Both mean that the linear similarity of two variables?
In general, we have $$\text{Corr}(X,Y) = \frac{E[(X-\mu_X)(Y-\mu_Y)]}{\sigma_X\sigma_Y} = \frac{E[XY]-E[X]E[Y]}{\sigma_X\sigma_Y}.$$ If your instructor or you did not make some kind of mistake, then this suggests that in your course, the random variables will be $X$ and $Y$ such that $$E[X]\times E[Y] = 0$$ and $$\sigma_X\times \sigma_Y = 1$$ so that $$ \text{Corr}(X,Y) = \frac{E[XY]-0}{1} =E(XY)=\int\int_{\mathbb R^2}xy\cdot f(x,y) dxdy.$$ Unless that is actually true, this seems very suspicious.