This questions was proposed by our statistics teacher as home work.
I have been looking for any reasonable explanation but so far I am getting more and more confused differentiating between the two concepts.
Could someone please clarify them for me?
This questions was proposed by our statistics teacher as home work.
I have been looking for any reasonable explanation but so far I am getting more and more confused differentiating between the two concepts.
Could someone please clarify them for me?
If A and B are independent $$P(A \cap B)=P(A)P(B)$$
If they are mutually exclusive then $$P(A \cap B)=0$$
So the only way that two outcomes can be both independent and mutually exclusive is if at least one of the outcomes occurs with zero probability