Is the function
$$y(x) = c \int_{-1}^1 \cos(xt)(1-t^2)^{n-\tfrac{1}{2}}dt = c \sum \tfrac{(-1)^m x^{2m}}{(2m)!} \int_{-1}^1 t^{2m}(1-t^2)^{n-\tfrac{1}{2}}dt$$
given here a bessel function? It doesn't look like the one given in 9.1.20 here yet the method of producing it (Laplace transforms, given here) seems rock-solid, what's going on here, why is it different from the standard one?
Use the change of variables $t^2=y$ and the $\beta$ function to evaluate the integral
$$ 2\int_{0}^1 t^{2m}(1-t^2)^{n-\tfrac{1}{2}}dt = \int _{0}^{1}\!{y}^{m-1/2} \left( 1-y \right) ^{n-1/2}{dy}= {\frac {\Gamma \left( n+1/2 \right) \Gamma \left( m+1/2 \right) }{ \Gamma \left( m+n+1 \right) }}.$$
If you sum the series you will get the result
where $J_n(x)$ is the Bessel function of the first kind.