Let $G$ be a group with group operation $*$. Let $G^{op}$ be a group that shares the same base set with $G$ but the group operation $*^{'}$ is such that $a*^{'}b = b*a$. We would like to show that $G$ is isomorphic to $G^{op}$.
The standard way is to construct mapping $f: G \to G^{op}$ by $f(x)=x^{-1}$. This constitutes the isomorphism.
But I had an alternative idea which I am not sure whether it works.
Construct mapping $\varphi : G \to G^{op}$. (We assume $G$ is non-trivial of course.)Start with $\varphi(1_G)= 1 _{G^{op}}$. Choose a non-identity $g_1 \in G$, let $\varphi(g_1)=g_1$, and in general $\varphi(g_1 ^ k) = g_1 ^k, \forall k \in \mathbb Z$. Let the cyclic group generated by $g_1$ be named $G_1$.
Now we take an element $g_2 \notin G_1$. Let $\varphi(g_2^k)=g_2^k$. If an element of $G$ can be written as $g_1 ^ {k_1} g_2 ^{k_2}g_1^{k_3}....g_{1 \mbox{ or }2}^{k_\alpha}$, we map it to $ g_{1 \mbox{ or }2}^{k_\alpha}....g_1^{k_3}g_2 ^{k_2}g_1 ^ {k_1}$. This constructs the mapping on the subgroup $G_2$ generated by $g_1$ and $g_2$.
In general, if we have constructed the group $G_\gamma$ generated by a set of generators index by set $\Gamma$ $g_1, ... g_\gamma$, we introduce an element $g_{\gamma +1}$ such that $g_{\gamma+1} \notin G_{\gamma}$, we map the element $g_{i_1}^{k_1}g_{i_2}^{k_2} .... g_{i_\alpha}^{k_\alpha}$ to $g_{i_\alpha}^{k_\alpha} ... g_{i_2}^{k_2}g_{i_1}^{k_1}$ (note that $\alpha$ is finite). We do some sort of transfinite induction (I suppose?) to finish this off, and every element in $G$ can be represented as a word from a finite alphabet drawn from the set of generators. Then I think we should have constructed an anti-automorphism. Does this work?
Thank you.
Wilson
As Heinirich pointed out, the element of $G$ many not have unique expression in terms of generators; on the other hand consider $S_4$.
$$(12)(123)=(23) \mbox{ and also } (42)(423)=(23).$$ So while defining $f((23))$, on one hand we will have $$f(23)=(123)(12)=(13...)(4)$$ but on the other hand $$f(23)=(423)(42)=(43..)(1),$$ so $f$ no longer remains well-defined.