Is this a valid proof of the Collatz Conjecture?
For all even numbers x >= 20, if all numbers 1 through x are in Collatz set, show x+1 and x+2 are in set. Then by induction, all positive integers are in set.
For all even numbers x >= 20, if all numbers 1 through x are in Collatz set, then all even numbers between x and 2x are in the set. Therefore x+2 is in the set.
For all even numbers x >= 20, ((x+1)*3) + 1) / 2 is an even number between x and 2x. Therefore x+1 is in the set.
We already know that all numbers between 1 and 20 are in the set.
(I picked 20 sort of at random.)
is not correct if $x$ is a multiple of $2$ but not a multiple of $4$
since if $x=4n+2$ then $\dfrac{(x+1)\times3 + 1}{2}= 6n+5$, which is an odd number