Is this assertion about g.c.d. true?

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Is it true that if $\gcd(a,bc)=1$ and $\gcd(b,c)=1$ then $\gcd(a,b^2)=\gcd(a,c^2)=\gcd(ab^2,c^2)=\gcd(a,(bc)^2)=1$? Many thanks.

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Hint: the two conditions imply that $a$, $b$, and $c$ are all pairwise relatively prime.