I have the following conjecture, need to know a proof just in case mine is wrong, or the conjecture itself is wrong.
The sum of $k$ distinct Fibonacci numbers can be written in at most $k$ ways as the sum of another $k$ distinct numbers from the sequence
Proof: Take, say 4, Fibonacci numbers with distinct values: $$144+34+3+2$$ We can see that we must maintain the distinctness and number of the Fibonacci numbers. So when we split the numbers; $$[89+55]+[13+21]+3+2$$
It is immediately apparent that if some numbers are split into smaller Fibonacci numbers, others must be merged to keep only 4 numbers. Thus, 3+2 becomes 5, and either 144 or 34 kept as-is. Thus, $$144+34+3+2=89+55+34+5=144+21+13+5$$
I know it's a rudimentary proof, and $k$ ways of writing the same sum is probably a wrong upper bound, but at least it works for now.
Please do let me know what's wrong. Thanks.
We show that the conjectured upper bound of $k$ is a fair distance from the truth.
Let $W$ be a set of $3n$ distinct Fibonacci numbers, of which $n$ are lonely (no other Fibonacci number in $W$ is near them) and the remaining $2n$ are lonely couples. A lonely couple is a set of two consecutive Fibonacci numbers, with no other element of $W$ near them. Let $N$ be the sum of the Fibonacci numbers in $W$.
Then we can get another representation of $N$ as a sum of $3n$ Fibonacci numbers by selecting any $k$ lonely numbers, and representing each of them as a sum of two consecutive Fibonacci numbers, and selecting any $k$ lonely couples, and expressing each of their sums as a single Fibonacci number.
The $k$ lonely numbers can be chosen from the $n$ lonely numbers in $W$ in $\binom{n}{k}$ ways. For each choice, the $k$ lonely couples can be chosen in $\binom{n}{k}$ ways. It follows that $N$ has at least $$\sum_{k=0}^n \binom{n}{k}\binom{n}{k}$$ representations as a sum of distinct Fibonacci numbers. It is well-known that the above sum is equal to $\binom{2n}{n}$. For large $n$, this is much larger than the $3n$ that the conjecture would suggest. Indeed by using the Stirling formula, one can show that $\binom{2n}{n}$ is asymptotically equal to $\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi}}\frac{2^{2n}}{\sqrt{2n+1}}$.