¬(for all n in N, there exists m in N, g(m,n))
equivalent to:
there exists n in N, for all m in N, ¬g(m,n)
Is that correct?
Thanks!
2026-04-01 04:16:51.1775017011
Is this negation correct for this statement?
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Indeed, that's correct. $$\lnot( \forall n \in \mathbb N, \exists m \in \mathbb N, g(m, n))\equiv \exists n \in \mathbb N, \forall m \in \mathbb N, \lnot g(m,n)$$