Is this Power Rule correct?

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$\left(\frac{\ 1 }{(1+x)^{1+b}}\right)$ = ${(1+x)^{-(1+b)}}$

where x and b are any real numbers

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There need to be restrictions generally so as for the expression to be legit. First of all, it must be $1+x \neq 0$ since it is the denomimator of a fraction. Secondly, it's a quantity below of a root, so it also must be positive.

I am mentioning these because despite the power rule being correct, the expression wouldn't be legit for any $x$ or $b$ as you mentioned.