$\require{cancel}$I need to evaluate the following limit: $$\lim_{n\to\infty}\sum_{np}^{nq}\frac1k \quad \text{where $\quad p\geq1,q\geq1$}$$
The way I tackled this problem is as follows:
Recall the relation:
$$\sum_{k=1}^n\frac1k = \ln(n)+\gamma+o(1) \quad \text{as $n\to\infty$}$$
Therefore, assuming $q\geq p$, the initial limit can be expressed as:
$$\begin{align*} \lim_{n\to\infty}\sum_{np}^{nq}\frac1k &= \lim_{n\to\infty}\left(\sum_{k=1}^{nq}\frac1k-\sum_{k=1}^{np-1}\frac1k\right)\\ &=\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(\ln(nq)+\cancel{\gamma}-\ln(np-1)\cancel{-\gamma}+o(1)\right)\\ &= \lim_{n\to\infty}\ln\left(\frac{nq}{np-1}+o(1)\right)=\ln\left(\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(\frac{\cancel{n}q}{\cancel{n}\left(p-\frac1n\right)}+o(1)\right)\right)=\boxed{\ln\left(\frac{q}{p}\right)} \end{align*}$$
Are the result and procedure correct? Also, do I need to prove the initial identity (for a Homework Assignment)?
The approach in the OP is fine.
We simply write
$$\begin{align} \sum_{k=np}^{nq}\frac{1}{k}&=\sum_{k=0}^{n(q-p)}\frac{1}{k+np}\\\\ &=\frac{1}{np}\sum_{k=0}^{n(q-p)}\frac{1}{1+\frac k{np}}\tag 1 \end{align}$$
We recognize that the right-hand side of $(1)$ is the Riemann sum for
$$\begin{align} \frac1p\int_0^{q-p}\frac{1}{1+x/p}\,dx&=\log\left(1+\frac{q-p}{p}\right)\\\\ &=\log(q/p) \end{align}$$
Hence, we see that the coveted limit is
as expected!