Is this proof for pseudo primes suitable?

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Given that $$ab\equiv 1 \pmod n$$

and $n$ is a pseudo prime base $a$,

Show that $b$ is also a base for pseudo prime n.

I can raise to the power of $n$: $$(ab)^{n}\equiv 1 \pmod n$$

$$a^{n}{b}^{n}\equiv 1 \pmod n$$

and now I to divide them both by $ab$ which is equivalent 1.

Then I get $$ab(a^{n-1}{b}^{n-1})\equiv 1 \pmod n$$

$$a^{n-1}{b}^{n-1}\equiv 1 \pmod n$$

and $a^{n-1}\equiv 1 \pmod n$ by Fermat's Little Theorem. Then $b^{n-1}$ is congruent $1$ modulo $n$ which suits Fermat's Theorem...

though I am not realy sure of my proof...