Is this the right way to show it?

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Suppose we have a very standard form of differential equation

$$Mdx+Ndy=0$$

Which is homogeneous.

Show that the general solution of the above equation can be written as below,

$$x=c \phi (\frac{y}{x})$$ ,c is an arbitrary constant!

My attempt is as below:

We know that a homogeneous equation can be transformed into a separable equation with substitution of $y=vx$!$\frac{dy}{dx}=v+x\frac{dv}{dx}$

Knowing that $$N(tx,ty)=t^nN(x,y)$$ $$M(tx,ty)=t^nM(x,y)$$

Setting $t=\frac{1}{x}$

We would have $$\frac{dy}{dx}=-\frac{M(1,\frac{y}{x})}{N(1,\frac{y}{x})}$$

In standard form we have${\frac{dy}{dx}=f(\frac{y}{x})}$

$$v+x\frac{dv}{dx}=f(v)$$

Integrating we have

Let $$\int \frac{dv}{f(v)-v}=ln|\phi v|$$

$$x=c(\phi v)$$

$$x=c(\phi \frac{y}{x})$$

Can someone verify my work. If it is not enough please add it in the answer.

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Your work is correct. Here is how I would do it: We have a homogeneous differential equation. This means, we can write

$$M(x,y) = \sum_{m=1}^n a_mx^my^{n-m} = x^n\sum_{m=1}^n a_mx^{m-n}y^{n-m} = x^n\sum_{m=1}^n a_m\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)^{n-m} $$

For $N(x,y)$, we can do exactly the same thing.

Now:

$$Mdx + Ndy = 0 \iff Mdx = -Ndy \iff \frac{M}{N} = \frac{-dy}{dx}$$ $$\Rightarrow \frac{x^n\sum_{m=1}^n a_m\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)^{n-m}}{x^n\sum_{m=1}^n b_m\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)^{n-m}}dx = -dy$$

$$\Rightarrow \phi\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)dx = -dy$$

Now make the substitution $$z = \frac{y}{x}, zx = y, dy = dzx + zdx$$

so the differential equation becomes:

$$\phi(z)dx = -(xdz + zdx)$$

or equivalently:

$$(\phi(z) + z)dx = -xdz$$

$$\Rightarrow \int\frac{dx}{x} = \int\frac{-dz}{\phi(z)+z}$$

$$\Rightarrow \ln|x| = \int\frac{-dz}{\phi(z)+z}$$

$$\Rightarrow x = c \exp\left(\int\frac{-dz}{\phi(z)+z}\right) = c\psi(z) = \boxed{c\psi\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)}$$