U = $\begin{Bmatrix} 0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9 \end{Bmatrix}$
X = $\begin{Bmatrix} 0,1,2,3,4 \end{Bmatrix}$
Z = $\begin{Bmatrix} 1,3,5,7,9 \end{Bmatrix}$
Is this true? $\forall x\exists y ((x + y \in X) \vee (x - y)\in Z)$
My solution: (Before this i tried with y = 1 and y = 2)
y=3
x = 1 y = 3 --> 1+3 = 4 --> (X)
x = 2 y = 3 --> 3-2 = 1 --> (Z)
x = 3 y = 3 --> 3-3 = 0 --> (Z)
x = 4 y = 3 --> 4-3 = 1 --> (Z)
x = 5 y = 3 --> 5+3=8 or 5-3 = 2
So y = 3 is not true because 8 is not in (X) and 2 is not in (Z).
Do i need to test this for every other y = 4,5,6...9 to verify if this is true or not? Or is there a better faster way to do this?
The statement says, in plain english:
Therefore, you must prove the statement for all values of $x$, but the $y$ value doesn't need to be the same.
For $x=1,2,3,4$, you can select $y=3$.
For $x=5$, the value $y=3$ is not good, but that doesn't mean there doesn't exist some other value of $y$ that is good. In fact, if $x=5$, we can take $y=4$ to prove that the statement holds for $x=5$.