Let $X$ be a non-empty set. Let $\mathcal A$ be an algebra of subsets of $X$ and $\mathcal S (\mathcal A)$ be the $\sigma$-algebra of subsets of $X$ generated by $\mathcal A.$ Let $\mu : \mathcal A \longrightarrow [0,+\infty]$ be a measure on $\mathcal A.$ Let $\mu^*$ be the induced outer measure. Let $\mathcal S^*$ be the $\sigma$-algebra of $\mu^*$-measurable subsets of $X.$ Then what I know is that $\mathcal A \subseteq \mathcal S^*$ and hence $\mathcal S (\mathcal A) \subseteq \mathcal S^*.$ Then the measure space $(X,\mathcal S^*, \mu^*)$ is complete since $\mathcal N \subseteq \mathcal S^*,$ where $$\mathcal N : = \{E \subseteq X\ |\ \mu^*(E) = 0 \}.$$ The measure space $(X,\mathcal S^*,\mu^*)$ is called the completion of the measure space $(X,\mathcal S (\mathcal A),\mu^*).$
For the Lebesgue measure space we have $X = \Bbb R,$ $\mathcal S^* = \mathcal L_ {\Bbb R},$ the $\sigma$-algebra of Lebesgue measurable sets, $\mathcal S(\mathcal A) = \mathcal B_{\Bbb R},$ the $\sigma$-algebra of Borel sets and $\mu^* = \lambda^*,$ the outer Lebesgue measure induced by the length function. Hence in this case we can say that the Lebesgue measure space $(\Bbb R, \mathcal L_{\Bbb R}, \lambda^*)$ is complete and it is the completion of $(\Bbb R, \mathcal B_{\Bbb R},\lambda^*).$ Let $$\mathcal N : = \{E \subseteq X\ |\ \lambda^*(E)=0 \}.$$ Now since the Lebesgue measure space is complete, $\mathcal N \subseteq \mathcal L_{\Bbb R}.$ That means all the subsets of $\Bbb R$ which have outer Lebesgue measure $0$ are Lebesgue measurable. But how can it be true in reality? I know the existence of non-Lebesgue measurable sets (i.e. Vitali set) having outer Lebesgue measure $0.$ I don't understand where did I mess up! Can anybody please help me in clearing my confusion?
Thank you so much for your valuable time for reading.

That's not true. Vitali sets have positive outer measure, and indeed that's how we prove they're not measurable (if they were, by the countable additivity of Lebesgue measure the interval $[0,1]$ would have to have infinite measure). It is indeed the case that all outer-measure-zero sets are measurable.