How can I prove that ring $\mathbb{Z}[x, y]/(y+1)$ is isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}[x]$?
I think these are isomorphic as there is a epimorphisim $T \colon \mathbb{Z}[x, y] \to \mathbb{Z}[x]$ defined by $T\big(p (x,y)\big) = p (x,-1)$ with kernel $(y+1)$. So by fundamental theorem both are isomorphic. Am I right?
You're right.
Perhaps it's clearer if you argue as follows:
Then apply this to $D=\mathbb Z[x]$.