I'm looking at a problem in my textbook and it says:
Let $ψ : G_1 → G_2$ be a surjective group homomorphism. Let $H_1$ be a normal subgroup of $G_1$ and suppose that $ψ(H_1) = H_2$. Prove or disprove that $G_1/H_1$ is isomorphic $G_2/H_2$.
So far, I know that since $H_1$ is normal in $G_1$, $H_2$ is also normal in $G_2$. I'm unsure how to proceed from here though, can someone give me a hint?
The statement is wrong. Just take $G_1=\mathbb{Z}_2$, $H_1=\{0\}$, $G_2=\{0\}$. Then $H_2=\{0\}$ and $G_1/H_1=\mathbb{Z}_2$ is not isomorphic to $G_2/H_2=\{0\}$.